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  1. Breivik, terror and Islamophibia | Free Society Institute

    [...] yet the perceived equivalence between terrorism and Islam were too strong for some to resist. Read more at Synapses. Share [...]

  2. Patrick
    Patrick July 26, 2011 at 4:18 pm | | Reply

    You are right, Jacques.

    And yet, I think something may have gotten a little twisted here.

    People rightly complained that the ‘terrorist’ attack was assumed to have been perpetrated by Muslims and that it ceased to be called a ‘terrorist’ attack when the perpetrator was discovered not to be Muslim.

    To these complaints, I think, it is incidental that Breivik is a Christian — the important point is that he wasn’t (as was assumed) a Muslim, not that he *was* something else. In other words, the complaint against the media’s Islamophobic assumptions would been just as valid had Breivik turned out to be an Hasidic Jew, a Pastafarian or an atheist.

    I don’t mean to set up a straw man here, because I don’t think you’ve disputed this. But I think you may have suggested something that’s not apparent from the facts, which is that Breivik’s Christianity was an important factor in motivating his behaviour. To me, judging by what I’ve read of his blogs and so on, it seems that Breivik was motivated by passionate conservative political views (anti-multiculturalism, to name one clumsily) and not by religious ones.

    The most similar instance in recent memory is Timothy McVeigh of the Oklahoma City Bombing, which seemed to be motivated by selective disagreement with US foreign and domestic policy. His religious outlook was mixed (http://tinyurl.com/39da4ms).

    In other words, I think the “nonsense” he believed that led Breivik to carry out his atrocity seems to have been political nonsense, whatever other nonsense he may have subscribed to. He doesn’t seem to have done it “in the name of” Christianity. So, however justified ‘religiophobia’ may be in general, it seems a stretch to take this case as a justification for it.

  3. Joseph Shaw
    Joseph Shaw July 26, 2011 at 4:24 pm | | Reply

    Hi Jacques. You’re essentially saying that all religions must cater directly for any and all possible interpretations of it’s principles and values; no matter how paradoxical they may seem to it’s leaders and followers?

    I’m not sure how religions should be held accountable for other individual’s eisegesis of its scriptures?

    That would be like saying the Government of South Africa must be held accountable if someone were to take the constitution of SA and cuts words out of it, then pasting them onto a page to say “It is acceptable to murder children.” and proceeded to indiscriminately shoot children whilst proclaiming they are merely following the constitution of SA in doing so.

    Surely a comprehensive exegesis of what the scriptures (including my example of the constitution of SA) say should be the standard whereby we hold religions to account?

  4. Hans Pietersen
    Hans Pietersen July 26, 2011 at 6:32 pm | | Reply

    Astute observation and good article, Jacques.

  5. Joseph Shaw
    Joseph Shaw July 27, 2011 at 7:42 am | | Reply

    Okay, if we’re going to be literal about this even though I put scriptures in quotation marks, let’s change premise 1 to:

    1. The beliefs of atheists are (often) based on their writings.

    Is the argument still invalid? If so, why?

  6. Ryan Peter
    Ryan Peter July 27, 2011 at 9:36 am | | Reply

    It’s still an interesting argument Jacques, because surely an atheist does subscribe to a particular philosophy? That philosophy, a secular philosophy, might have quite a strong link to evolutionary theory, and therefore would have a link to atrocities committed by other atheists in history who held to similar philosophies.

    I think Patrick raises the most valid point – this is about politics more than anything else. And if we look at the past, even atrocities committed by ‘atheists’ or ‘atheist governments’ have more to do with politics than anything else.

    Even all this Muslim terrorist stuff is really about politics. The issue is how much you or anyone want to make mix their religious / philosophical views with politics, where they draw the line and how they do that.

    That’s why I believe when Jesus said “Give to Caesar what is Caesar’s” he was saying something profound that even to this day we haven’t gotten right – separate religion from politics and things become clearer.

    In your case, I would say separate secular philosophy from politics. It would be very interesting to me to see if that can be done and if you think it should be done, and why or why not? Because surely a purely secular government running on a purely secular philosophy can become as much a tyrant as any religious one. And indeed, history shows us this likely to be the case.

  7. Ryan Peter
    Ryan Peter July 27, 2011 at 10:43 am | | Reply

    “An atheist does not believe in god(s). That’s it.”

    Yes, I’ve heard this stated before. But surely a religious person believes in god(s) and that’s it as well. So it’s in the clear as much as atheism. The difference comes when it’s about what theology or philosophy someone subscribes to. The term ‘theist’ is probably more appropriate.

    “Of course a secular government can also be tyrannical – they’re just less likely to be, because they would believe less nonsense.”

    That, of course, is a matter of opinion and perspective. Secular opinions may very well be nonsense, but it’s not nonsense to them, just like any other worldview.

    What I really find interesting by the statement, however, is this word ‘believe’. What does a secular government then ‘believe’ and how will it not use the sword to ensure I believe the same? Is it right that there should be a prevalent ‘belief’, ideology and philosophy in government?

    “History does not show what you suggest, either. Atrocities aren’t committed in the name of atheism.”

    Likewise, atrocities haven’t really been committed in the name of ‘religion’ but rather in the name of Allah, Jesus, or other gods – indicating they have been done in the name of a particular type of religion, a certain theistic theology. But not in the name of religion or theism.

    Likewise, ‘secular atrocities’ (using that term just to be clear) are committed in the name of particular secular philosophies.

    Religion is a term as neutral as atheism when it comes to political and theological leanings. This is really my point.

    Which is why, for me, when atheists attack this general term ‘religion’ as something intrinsically evil and saying their viewpoint is superior, they are speaking nonsense. How is atheism superior when it actually doesn’t consist of any philosophy of any kind? How is theism / religion a worldview but atheism is not? The argument should be against particular types of theism, or otherwise do not argue for a superior worldview at all.

  8. Thomas Hendricks
    Thomas Hendricks July 27, 2011 at 1:04 pm | | Reply

    The reason the belief of the athiest (there is no god) is superior to the belief of the theist or religious person is simple – all the available evidence points to a lack of gods existence, and unless he presents himself/herself/itself in someway, athiesm is the only realistic option.

    Consider that very, very few athiests would carry on being athiests if they were shown god or shown absolutely verifiable evidence of suspention of natural order by a supreme being, they would then adjust their views in accordance with the evidence presented.

    However, the religious believe what they believe on faith, that is they believe it with incomplete and or non sensical evidence and with weak arguments supporting their belief. They are not prepared to change their views even as science slowly squeezes out the remaining gaps god seeps into. Most notably evolution/creation “controversy”.

  9. Ryan Peter
    Ryan Peter July 27, 2011 at 2:34 pm | | Reply

    Hi Thomas,

    I’m not being arrogant or anything here, but I really consider your answer overly simplistic and hardly giving any real reason why the atheist ‘belief’ is superior to a theist belief. And I’d venture to say that you ought to be careful with this word ‘belief’ especially if you’re wanting to make commentary on ‘faith’ :)

    I’m always somewhat perplexed at the kind of answer you provide because it makes no account for experience. It’s perfectly possible that, if there were a god, that he/it might have revealed himself /itself to one person and not another, which would render your ‘evidence’ simply your own interpretation of your own experiences, but nothing more than that. But this is a philosophical point that does touch on presuppositions and is probably beyond the scope of anything we could discuss here.

    Lastly, I would question the way you seem to be using Science. You seem to imply that if Science shows us X then that automatically means Y, when in fact all it may mean is X. But perhaps I’m being guilty of being simplistic now.

  10. Joseph Shaw
    Joseph Shaw July 27, 2011 at 3:36 pm | | Reply

    Hi Thomas. Unfortunately you can’t have evidence for nothing, or to put it in other terms make a deductive argument with “lack of evidence”, as your proof that atheism is superior to theism. You’re welcome to try your hand at an inductive argument however ;-)

    But then a theist makes the same inductive arguments and there is no “higher” epistemic validity to the scientific method that gives an atheist the “silver bullet” you claim.

    You argument about science can be reduced to:
    1) Science is epistemologically superior to any other method
    Therefore
    2) Science is epistemologically superior

    That beg’s the question…

  11. Thomas Hendricks
    Thomas Hendricks July 27, 2011 at 11:40 pm | | Reply

    Hi Ryan

    I appreciate the question of individual experience, and if an individual believed that they had had some or another experience of god that it would be difficult to critisize their claims. However, given that very, very many claims of contact with god or revelation via god are contrived to say the least (http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=uPo411ysueM). I’d say one is in safe ground to rule out individual experiences in favour of scientific method.

    Given that the accepted scientific method before something can be considered scientific fact is 5 sigma; that is, the probablility of it being some kind of error is 0.0002% (somebody can check my calculation here I may be wrong!) , I think there should be clear reason why we should accept the scientific method over religious claims to revelation through god/jesus/allah etc.

    My “argument” about the superiority of the scientific method is not as listed by Joseph, rather it is a claim I am prepared to make about the method, thus it is not the circular jumble you have assembled, as Jacques has repeatedly pointed out here, you seem intent on creating straw men and then attacking those, be welcome to if you so wish, just don’t expect to be taken particularly seriously.

    I agree with your final statement Ryan, that science doesnt create absolute “fact” in the sense of something totally certain (literally something 100%). For example anyone must admit that there is still some chance that god did make the animals and that the fossils are just the devil tricking us. I’m prepared to accept that, given the evidence we have, there is some chance of this interpretation being correct. However I think it also needs to be recognised that, given the current evidence, some form of evolutionary biology provides a near infinitely more compelling solution, backed unanamously by those who study this field.

    Basically all science does is provide our most compelling view of a natural phenomenon based on the available evidence. Consider the development of physical laws, from Aristotle, to Newton, to Einstein.

    I used belief in the sense of holding something to be true. I’m not sure which word can be used instead of belief? Either way, I think there is a vast distiction to the belief I have that, for example, Newtons laws of motion apply at slow speeds, and the belief a religious person has that god is listening to their prayers, and that is the distinction I am trying to highlight.

  12. Joseph Shaw
    Joseph Shaw July 28, 2011 at 9:16 am | | Reply

    Hi Thomas. You say “My “argument” about the superiority of the scientific method is not as listed by Joseph, rather it is a claim I am prepared to make about the method, thus it is not the circular jumble you have assembled, as Jacques has repeatedly pointed out here, you seem intent on creating straw men and then attacking those, be welcome to if you so wish, just don’t expect to be taken particularly seriously.”

    Check out http://thesaurus.com/browse/argument and you’ll find, “Main Entry: argument
    Part of Speech: noun
    Definition: effort to convince; presentation of support
    Synonyms: argumentation, assertion, case, claim, contention, debate, defense, discussion, exchange, expostulation, grounds, line of reasoning, logic, plea, pleading, polemic, proof, questioning, reason, reasoning, remonstrance, remonstration”

    I would say that you are failing to recognise the invalidity of your own claim (see all other synonyms above) by either deliberate obfuscatory language or genuine misunderstanding. If the latter then we can reason together in mutual fraternity towards a satisfactory conclusion, if the latter then I will level your same dismissal at you; “you seem intent on creating straw men and then attacking those, be welcome to if you so wish, just don’t expect to be taken particularly seriously.”

    1. Joseph Shaw
      Joseph Shaw July 28, 2011 at 9:18 am | | Reply

      Apologies for the finger trouble…change the above second “latter” to “former”.

  13. Thomas Hendricks
    Thomas Hendricks July 28, 2011 at 11:46 am | | Reply

    I think you should check this definition rather than the definition for argument.

    Argument requires logical structure, which is what you tried to impose on my assertion. Basically I make the statement that scientifically verifiable claims are superior. My support for this is evidence of science having been, thus far, on a slow progression toward showing us the reality underlying our world.

    Thus I do not provide an argument. Or at least not in the logical, philosophical, sense.

  14. Anonymouse
    Anonymouse August 3, 2011 at 2:15 pm | | Reply

    Hi Jacques,

    This is a reply to your article, “See what I mean? Or maybe you don’t…”, on Daily Maverick. I still like my anonymity :) .

    I think you are correct in asserting that atheism should not be viewed as anything more than a lack of belief in god(s). Atheism is not an ideology and there is no common ideology among atheists. I also think it is incorrect for religious people (and others?) to blame atrocities associated with Stalin, Mao etc. or even good things done by atheists on atheism. No act, neither good, nor evil can be blamed on atheism. It would be like blaming the actions of a conservative on his non-stamp-collecting. Nonsensical.

    The followers of a specific ideology tend to have an effect on the world. Atheism on its own won’t have any effect on the world. So it is no surprise that atheists tend to have different ideologies. Some conservative, some liberal, some Libertarian, some even positively homicidal. Like any other human being, atheists have an effect on the world, however it is not due to their atheism but whatever ideology they have. This much should be obvious.
    Take for example Brevik. The ideology that best describes him is an ethnic nationalist. He calls himself a Christian, he said he is “first and foremost a man of logic,” calls himself “economically liberal” and said “it is essential that science take an undisputed precedence over biblical teachings” and he is a fan of Darwinism (albeit a crude form). No doubt scientists, Darwinists, logicians, economic liberals, scientists and Christians do not want him on their side. His actions are responsible for this. I think if we are to be consistent then we should admit that religion, science, logic, Darwinism and economic liberalism ALL “create the epistemic space in which harmful interpretations are possible” and they can be used to support ideologies that are discriminatory. Of course this last bit is redundant since there is not a single ideology that isn’t discriminatory in ANY way. Every single ideology is discriminatory towards some other ideology in some way. The point is, if you give the immoral a plausible excuse (be it religion, logic, science, Darwinism, economic liberalism etc.) to be wicked, they’ll find a way to use it

    With regard to your statement that “But any of us – and any religions – that encourage belief on the basis of faith rather than evidence are at least partly culpable for horrors committed in their name.”
    I can agree to that. When faith is described as believing something without evidence, I can agree that it is wrong. The problem though is that I think you would be hard pressed to find ANY person that believes in something without evidence. The child that believes in the tooth fairy believes in it because his parents told him it exists. Theists believe in God, because God by definition is responsible for why there is something rather than nothing. Reality is their evidence they will say. The evidence for being a Muslim is in the Koran, a Christian it is the Bible. Every person believes in something because they have some evidence for it. The problem is with the concept of evidence, not faith (not as described above).

    With regard to your comment about “Where moderate religious folk refrain from taking the bloodthirsty injunctions in their scriptures literally, it is because of secular morality.”
    I think the proper wording is “secular law” as in laws not derived from any religion-related laws. The concept of “secular morality” is vague and I think nonsensical. There is no such thing IMO. There is no common set of morals that are secular by nature or derived from secularism. The major approaches to the concept of morality and ethics are moral relativism, virtue ethics, consequentialism, natural law, deontology (each with its own subgroups). Harris’ view, although secular, collapses to utilitarian consequentialism and has been rightly criticized by atheist and non-atheists. E.g. http://lacrimae-rerum.org/?p=97.

    All of the best.

  15. Anonymouse
    Anonymouse August 4, 2011 at 10:01 am | | Reply

    Jacques, I await your post about the criticisms of Harris that you were impressed with :) .

  16. Anonymouse
    Anonymouse August 6, 2011 at 10:22 am | | Reply

    Jacques, I think the problem is that we don’t know what your position is. Our faulty “impressions” are due to a lack of clarity from your side I am afraid to say.

    It is probably best if you lay out your position in a clear manner. Maybe write a book or something. But I guess a post would be nice, no matter how long.

  17. Anonymouse
    Anonymouse August 6, 2011 at 10:47 am | | Reply

    A contractarian? Let me guess. Rawls had an influence?

  18. Anonymouse
    Anonymouse August 6, 2011 at 10:49 am | | Reply

    Or is it Locke’s version? No wait, it must be Hobbes… or surely it must be Rousseau. Throws us a bone :) .

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